Wednesday, October 17, 2012

Cameraman gangatho rambabu-Movie review

He has proved it once again that he is one man show.After super success of gabbar singh pawan has choosen a dare subject really great of him.

Coming to the movie pawan is awesome in the movie right from the looks,action part and especially to mention his dialogue delivery.There are so many punch political sattires that every one seem to enjoy.This is the for the first time pawan excelled with his dialogues.Unlike komaram puli people accepted him this time in serious role.
puri has done his home work for this movie.good work by him.coming to the performances prakash,kota,brahmanandham,ali are good as usual adding to the performance of pawan.songs are good but melikel thiruguthunte song is awesome fans just cant stop dancing.

verdict-4/5 just for pawans performance

Thursday, October 11, 2012

IBPS Announces Common Written Examination For Recruitment In Clerical Cadre In Public Sector Banks 2012

good news ibps announces recruitment in clerical cadre in public sector banks.great oppurtunity for the job aspirants.The exam will be for 200 marks


for further information check the official website

advertisement ibps

Monday, October 8, 2012

Funny baby saving money video

In this little girl saving money in the box and at last asks to break it.really funny watch and enjoy

Thursday, September 27, 2012

Download Written Exam Hall Ticket Recruitment to Clerical Cadre in Associate Banks of SBI

The exam to be held on oct 7 and oct 14.This is the great oppurtunity to the job your hall tickets from the following link.all the best

hall ticket download

Monday, September 24, 2012

IBPS-RRB Probationary Officers Sep 2 2012 Expected Cut Off Marks

IBPS RRB Probationary Officers Exam Was held on sep 2 2012.The exam was easier compared to the last ibps exam conducted for other public sector banks on june 17.

Coming to the expected cut off marks if u can score 70% or above marks (not standardised score)u can expect the job.In the particular exam you need to get 140 or above to be on safe side,these students have high chances of getting job.
Students who are getting between 120-140 can expect interview and getting job depends on your interview marks.There are as many as 83 banks participating in this so dont worry folks any thing can happen.


Sunday, September 9, 2012

FCI grade III (General, Depot) Previous and Model Question papers

SSC FCI assistant grade III paper II & III exam date | format |syllabus| admit card

Assistant Grade-III in General, Depot, Technical and Account Cadres & Hindi Posts (AG-II & Typists) in FCI-2012

For result and number of total candidate information – click here

Paper II-

Cadre post code

General A

Accounts B

Depot D

Paper –III

Cadre post code

Technical C
Exam date -15-04-2012 (Sunday)

Exam format-

Question - Objective Type


(a)Quantitative Methods (50 Questions) 100 Marks

(b) English Language & Comprehension (100 Questions) 100 Marks

Time – 10.00 AM to 12.00 Noon

*40 minutes extra for VH candidates.


Biological Sciences (200 questions) 200 Marks

Time -2.00PM to 4.00 PM

*40 minutes extra for VH candidates


Smith came to India to learn something about her culture and custom.
she cut the strip of photographs and gave one to her friend.
on the date of the function he will be in delhi.
it was fine summer day.
what have you been doing all the day?
you have to answer each questions on a new page?
each of them did not have a scooter.
they have each their own problems.
we are fascinated by life in earth.
man has lived in the earth for many years.
At the end she decided to go abroad.
In the end of the dinner prathibha spoke.
We make tables, chairs and cots etc..
He has ever arrived late.
Have you always been to Delhi?
There are n't enough jobs for everybody in our country.
The teacher is supposed to give a good example.
They go out on sundays and this sunday is not an exception.
our house faces to the river.
Hyderabad is far from Delhi.
Agra is n't a long way from Mathura.
She doesn't go swimming because she fears of the water.
If there is a gas leak, the building will go on fire.
She got off her car to inspect the damage.
Smith was judged guilty of murder.
They agreed to give him the half of the money.
They future of the country must not be in the hand of one man.
If she drinks tea, she gets headache.
They said that they were going on holidays to Ooty.
Anitha has just come back from holidays.
It is time Avanti made a holiday.
Satya is in hurry to catch the bus.
Her duty is to look after ill children.
Her mother is seriously sick.
Nobody cried in the funeral.
Gayatri is a lecturer in the university of hyderabad.
As it was raining, Archana stayed indoor.
Is cricket an indoors game?
The lorry was badly injure in the accident.
Two persons were badly damaged in the accident.
Juno was invited in a party on Sunday.
They invited Raju to a drink at the club.
Can you understand computer jargons well?
If I have the tools, I can make the job in an hour.
Don't say the same joke again and again.
Hard work is the key of our success.
Sudha went out to know what was happening.
I know that she is speaking lies.
They went to enjoy a luxury life.
Are you becoming bad?

Posted by Mohan Talari at 5:33 AM No comments:
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1. Ten candidates have passed one failed
2. He succeeded because he works hard.
3. Our teacher said that the earth moved round the sun.
4. We start early lest we shall miss the train.
5. I hoped to immediately reply to your letter.
6. I should have liked to have gone there.
7. He seems to enjoy his stay in Madras.
8.Sitting on the gate, a scorpion stung him.
9. He might went there.
10. They were punished for come late.
11. I shall wait for you till you will finish your work.
12. I have bought a cycle yesterday.
13. When I reached the station, the train already left.
14. How long are you working in this office?
15. I have not got none.
16. Nothing more can be done presently.
17. He will come back at present.
18. He tried hardly to win the race.
19. She has eaten hard anything today.
20. The news is much surprising.
21. I was very surprised at hearing the news.
22. The criminal was hung last week.
23. Although she was tired, but she still went on working.
24. Both ravi as well as raja were present there.
25. He not only lost his ticket, but also his luggage.
26. He washed neither his hands or his face.
27. No sooner do I finish this book then I shall begin another.
28. Hardly did I reach the station, than the train left it.
29. Please send the parcel to the address above-mentioned.
30. When I was a boy, I wanted to go to abroad.
31. According to us, we should not spend money on luxuries.
32. In the opinion of the writer, the government must pay attention to public opinion.
33. After the match, I had an ache in my legs.
34. My father couldn't afford paying for my education.
35. It is time I gave you your books again.
36. I would like to meet some of you back.
37. Soon he will be of my age.
38. As all you know her name is prasanti.
39. All of they know that john is a criminal.
40. She avoids to talk to strangers.
41. Do you believe ghosts?
42. She could not believe in everything he said.
43. Ramani is busy with doing the house work.
44. Please call to 802645.
45, Please call Priyanka with number 53407.
46. the committee is composed by a professor, two readers, three lecturers and a student representative.
47. You must keep the machine in a good condition.
48. You have to confirm us whether you have received the goods in time.
49. Ravi constantly got into trouble.
50. It is not possible to contact with them now.
Posted by Mohan Talari at 4:07 AM No comments:
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I am giving the incorrect sentences..try them and when you are done ask me for the key.

1. The audience are requested to be in its seats.

2. The sceneries of kashmir are beautiful.

3. The cattle is grazing in the field.

4. The people of our village is rich

5. Where is my spectacle?

6. Riches has wings.

7. The sheep are grazing in the field.

8. Time and Tide wait for no man

9. Bread and butter are his only food.

10. The chief minister, with his colleagues have offered to resign.

11. Either Ravi or raju have done this.

12. Neither of these two applicants were qualified.

13. One of my teachers live next door to me.

14. Gulliver's travels were written by Swift.

15. The united states have a big navy

16. Fifty thousand rupees are a large sum.

17. The committee have submitted its report.

18. The jury was divided in its opinion.

19. He gave me a ten rupees note

20. Each of these boys has done their homework.

21. Both Raju and Ravi have done his homework.

22. The collector and District magistrate is not negligent in their duty.

23. Neither Ravi nor Raju has done their homework.

24. I, You and he must work together.

25. You, they and we must work together.

26. If I were him, I would not do it.

27. Let You and I do it.

28. These presents are for you and I.

29. Himself did it.

30. One must not boast his own success.

31. Any one of these two roads leads to the railway station.

32. Neither of these three boys did their homework.

33. The two brothers loved one another.

34. Please excuse me being late.

35. The boys, who was lazy were punished.

36. I, who is your king will lead you.

37. He is such a man who I honour.

38. This is the same man who came yesterday.

39. Which is the best of the two?

40. He is wiser than brave.

41. He is cleverer than anyboy in the class

42. He is strongest of all other men.

43. He is the most cleverest boy in the class.

44. He is more wiser than his brother.

45. He is senior than me.

46. It is the most unique thing.

47. He is the wisest and honest worker in the office.

48. He is my older brother.

49. I am eighteen years old and my sister sixteen.

50. He never has, and never will take such strong measures.

Posted by Mohan Talari at 1:39 AM No comments:
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Sunday, September 2, 2012

1. The ecological niche of an organism denotes

a) the habit of an organism
b) its status within a particular community
c) its structure and feeding habits
d) the climatic factors of an organism

2. Rubber is obtained from the latex of___________

a) stem of Euphorbia spp.
b) stem of Carica papaya
c) stem of Hevea brasiliensis
d) fruits of Achras sapota

3. which of the following does not require external water for fertilization?

a) Mosses
b) Cycads
c) Ferns
d) Liverworts

4. The sporangia of a conifer are located on the

a) scales of cones
b) tips of the needles
c) base of the needles
d) axis of the branches

5. The transfusion tissue is present in the___________leaves.

a) Dryopteris
b) Cycas
c) Pinus
d) Cycas and pinus

6. The number of Cotyledons in Pinus seeds are

a) single
b) two
c) three
d) many

7. The conical habit of Pinus tree is because of

a) efficiency of water movement in plants
b) mutual competition between branches
c) competition between neighbouring pine trees for sunlight
d) effect of auxin on the growth of stem tip and axillary branches

8. The largest ovules are found amon

a) Monocots
b) Dicots
c) Gymnosperms
d) Angiosperms

9. __________is an example of a plant which bears seeds but not fruit.

a) cycas
b) pea
c) pinus
d) selaginella

10.Which one is not true regarding energy flow through ecosystem?

a) Energy inflows balance outflows
b) Even energy transfer is accompined by dispersion of energy into non available heat
c) the organism near the beginning of the food chain gets smaller amount of energy
d) A shorter food chain can support a larger amount of organisms.

11. Spot the organism that are not symbionts

a) Rhizobium and root of legume plant
b) Nostoc and coralloid root of cycas
c) algae and fungi
d) Vanda and a n angiosperm plant

12. the natural cycling of carbon between the organisms and the environment is accomplished through the process of
a) photosynthesis and respiration
b) radiation and immigration
c) fermentation and oxidation
d) Isolation and dispersal

13. Motile sperm cells are found in all of the following except
a) cycas
b) funaria
c) pteris
d) rhizopus

14. ___________is an example of symbiotic association of an organism
a) Algae
b) Fungi
c) Bacteria
d) Root nodule of legume plant

15. Gymnosperms are characterised by
a) naked seeds
b) seed enclosed in fruits
c) winged seed
d) multiple sperms

16. ______ is the edible part of pinus seed
a) pericarp
b) Female gametophyte
c) Diploid perisperm
d) Endosperm

17. The tissue in the roots of Vanda that absorbs water from the atmosphere is called
a) Aerenchyma
b) Xylem
c) Phloem
D) Velamen

18. Quiescent centre is present in

a) root apex
b) shoot apex
c) Vegetative apex
d) flower apex

19) Tunica and corpus organization occurs in

a) Root apex
b) shoot apex
c) Cambium
d) Inter-calary meristems

20) Which of the following tissued form the bulk of storage organ?

a) parenchyma
b) collenchyma
c) sclerenchyma
d) Aerenchyma

21) In a forest ecosystem green plants are

a) the primary producers
b) the secondary consumers
c) the decomposers
d) both secondary consumers and decomposers

22) Various modifications in the form and structure in the leaves of xerophytes are meant

a) to protect from air
b) to protect form excess transpiration
c) to check excess liberation of CO2
d) to help in absorption of O2

23) Etiolation in plants is due to

a) Total darkness
b) Full sunlight
c) Vitamin deficiency
d) Virus disease

24) Sunken stomata are found in

a) Epiphytes
b) Hydrophytes
c) Mesophytes
d) Xerophytes

25) Opuntia is a cactus which is a

a) ephemeral animal
b) Succulent
c) Non-succulent
d) Cladode

26) The ecological factors of soil and its enivironment and their interactions with the growth of plants comes under the following factors

a) Biotic factors
b) Abiotic factors
c) Edaphic factors
d) Climatic factors

27) ________is an example of a free floating hydrophyte

a) Eichhornia
b) vallisneria
c) Nymphaea
d) Typha

28) An ecosystem cannot continue functioning without a constant input of energy because

a) it is lost at each trophic level
b) it flows in an ecosystem that lacks organisms that store energy
c) an ecosystem includes decomposers in its community
d) of climate change and fast urbanization

29) The largest amount of water that is available for the plants from soil is

a) Gravitational water
b) Capillary water
c) Hygroscopic water
d) Soil water vapour

30) Polytene chromosomes are found in

a) Salivary glands of men
b) salivary glands of animals
c) salivary glands of women
d) salivary glands of Drosphila

31. what are the chromosomes with more than two chromatids called?

a) Lampubrush chromosomes
b) Polytene chromosomes
c) Acrocentric chromosomes
d) Allosomes

32. Genes for antibiotic resistance are located in

a) chromosome DNA
b) plasmid
c) RNA
d) Polymerase

33. A codon refers to

a) a unit of recombination
b) a unit that can undergo mutation
c) a set of bases in DNA which can code one amino acid.
d) any functional unit of DNA

34. ___________helps in DNA replication.

a) Amylase
b) Ligase
c) Luciferase
d) Hexokinase

35.___________enzyme that helps in DNA replication

a) nucleotidase
b) Arginase
c) DNA polymerase
d) Protease

36. A color blind man marries the daughter of a color blind person. then in their progeny

a) none of their daughters are color blind
b) all their daughters are color blind
c) all their sons are color blind
d) half their sons are color blind

37) There is no marking of expression of genes in Neurospora because

a) it has a short generation span
b) it is haploid
c) it requires minimum number of nutrients
d) it is diploid

38) Tyloses are balloon-like ingrowths seen in vessels of

a) primary xylem developing from adjoining parenchyma
b) secondary xylem developing from adjoining parenchyma
c) primary xylem developing from adjoining fibres
d) secondary xylem developing from adjoining fibres

39) which of the following statements is wrong?

a) Primary growth causes increase in height whereas secondary growth accounts for increase in diameter
b) the bark is a tissue outside cortex
c) the cambium is composed of two kinds of initials
d) In woody plants cambium functions for few years

40) ___________is the characterestic of a vascular bundle of monocot stem.

a) open and surrounded by a sclerenchyma bundle sheath
b) closed and not surrounded by a bundle sheath
c) closed and surrounded by a bundle sheath
d) open and not surrounded by a bundle sheath

41) Parenchymatous tissue is charecterized by

a) uniform thickening
b) thickening of the corners
c) lignified walls
d) intercellular spaces

42) cambium is considered a lateral meristem because

a) it increases the height and diameter of a stem
b) it gives rise to lateral branches
c) it increases the girth of a plant
d) it increases the length of a plant

43) primary growth is caused by or the length of a plant axis increases by

a) apical meristem
b) Lateral meritem
c) Dermatogen
d) plerome

44) A meristem may be defined as the group of cells which

a) do not divide
b) conserve food and fight against dio-stresses
c) divide continuously to give rise to new cells.
d) elongate and add to the group of cells

45) knowing that albinism is determined by a recessive gene in man, presence of albinism in the children borne to a normal couple proves that

a) both the mother and father are heterozygous for albinism
b) the father is homozygous normal but the mother is heterozygous
c) the father is homozygous for albinism but mother is heterzygous
d) father and mother are homozygous normal

46) In an E.coli according to the operon theory an operator gene combines with

a) inducer gene to 'switch on'
b) regulator gene to 'switch off'
c) regular protein to 'switch off' structural gene transcription
d) regular protein to 'switch on' structural gene trasncription

47) which of the following is haploid gymnosperms?

a) pollen grains, megaspore , root
b) pollen grains, megaspore, nucellus
c) Megaspore mother cell, root, leaf
d) Endosperm, pollen grains, megaspore

48) Cycas has two cotyledons but is not included in angiosperms because of

a) stems like monocot
b) large ovule
c) naked ovule
d) compound leaves

49) chromosome theory of heredity was formulated for the first time on the basis of the following..

a) chromosomes exhibit segregation and independent assortment during meiosis
b)there are a fixed number of chromosomes in each cell of an organism
c) chromosomes are the main structures in nucleus
d) determination of sex is through sex chromosomes

50) self-replicating cytoplasmic particles are capable of transmitting traits in inheritance to

a) mutagens
b) regular genes
c) plasma genes
d) operator genes

51) Nyctalopia is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin

a) A
b) B
c) D
e) E

52) Gout is characterised by the accumulation of

a) Urea
b) Ammonia
c) Uric acid
d) Ornithine

53) Number of polar bodies produced after first meiotic division during oogenesis is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

54) Centrolecithal eggs are found in

a) fishes
b) mammals
c) insects
d) reptiles

55) The indian born scientist who received the Nobel prize for having synthesised " Polyribonucliotides" is

a) Marshall warren Nirenberg
b) Venkataraman ramakrishnan
c) Amartya sen
d) Har gobind khorana

56) Baldness in man is an example for_______genes

a) sex-influenced
b) sex-limited
c) x-linked
d) z-linked

57) polymorphism may be developed by ____________selection

a) natural
b) directional
c) stabilizing
d) disruptive

58) Assertion (A) : Sodium ions move slower than glucose molecule across the plasma membrane
Reason (R) : Plasma membrane contain protein

a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct reason for A
b) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct reason for A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

59) The niche of a population is the

a) place where it lives
b) geographical area it covers
c) set of conditions and resources it uses
d) set of interactions it has with other populationss

60) The science of improving the hereditary qualities of human species of future generations is called

a) genetics
b) euthenics
c) Epigenesis
d) Eugenics

61) The deficiency of___________vitamin causes Beriberi

a) Riboflavin
b) Niacin
c) Pantothenic acid
d) Thiamine

62) The synthesis of prothrombin by the liver cells is stimulated by the vitamin

a) A
c) K
c) E
d) D

63) Which one of the following minerals is essential for blood coagulation?

a) calcium
b) phosphorus
c) Magnesium
d) Sodium

64) Limulus is an example of a living fossil that belongs to

a) Onychophora
b) Arachnida
c) Mollusca
d) Ratitae

65) First recombinat vaccine is available for

a) HIV
b) small pox
c) hepatits B
d) Polio

66) Polio is spread through

a) Mosquito
b) water contamination
c) air contamination
d) direct contact

67) which of the following is not correct about the size of the organisms?

a) viruses- 0.07-0.10 microns
b) amoeba- 8.00-15.0 microns
c) Bacteria-0.5-2.50 microns
d) Euglena-100-200 microns

68) Acetylcholine is secreted by

a) Endothelial cells
b) nerve cells
c) brunner's cells
d) pancreatic exocrine cells

69) The term chromosome was coined by

a) w. flemming
b) w. waldeyer
c) Richard Altman
d) Seymour benzer

70) In which stage does the reduction in chromosome number takes during meiosis?

a) prophase-I
b) anaphase-I
c) Metaphase-I
d) Metaphase-II

71) A cross between an F1 hybrid and any one of the parents from which it is derived is

a) monohybrid cross
b) dihybrid cross
c) back cross
d) test cross

72) alpha-thassaemia major is

a) inability to synthesize adult haemoglobin
b) premature red blood cell destruction
c) haemolysis and shortening of red blood life span
d) no functional and separated delta and b-globin chain genes

73) crossing over brings

a) cytoplasmic reorganization
b) recombination of genes
c) complete linkage
d) no significant change

74) somatic hybrids are produced by

a) protoplasmic fusion
b) tissue culture
c) pollen culture
d) hybridoma process

75) ___________enzyme catalyses the removal of hydrogen from one substrate and passes it on to a second substrate.

a) oxidase
b) dehydrogenase
c) oxygenase
d) hydrolases

76) wilson's disease is due to the deficiency of

a) cobalt
b) iodine
c) copper
d) flourine

77) daily requirement of vitamin B1 is______mg

a) 1.5 to 2.0
b) 0.5 to 1.0
c) 3 to 5
d) 1 to 2

78) These enzymes exist in two or more forms which have the same function, but they differ physically and chemically..

a) Apoenzymes
b) multienzymes
c) exoenzymes
d) Isoenzymes

79) Choose the wrong pair

a) flames cells- platyhelminthes
b) Nephridium- Amphioxus
c) malphigian tubules-Insects
d) green glands- crustacea

80)Egg with minimal yolk evenly distributed called as

a) Isolecithal
b) Telolecithal
c) Alecithal
d) Centrolecithal

81) Hydrocholoric acid in the stomach is secreted by

a) Argentaffin cells
b) peptic cells
c) Mucous neck cells
d) Oxyntic cells

82) Enzyme sucrose converts sucrose into

a) Glucose+ Fructose
b) Glucose+ Glucose
c) Glucose+ Galactose
d) Glucose+ Maltose

83) If the centromere divides the chromosome into two unequal arms, it is termed as

a) telocentric
b) acroccentric
c) submetacentric
d) metacentric

84) ____________is an autoimmune disease.

a) Glomerulonephritis
b) meningitis
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Hepatitis

85) Development of gut is called as

a) Neurogenesis
b) Notogenesis
c) Mesogenesis
d) Enterogenesis

86) The process by which cells gradually specialize to undergo changes in shape and function is known as ____________ differentiation.

a) morphological
b) physiological
c) chemical
d) cytological

87) which of the following statements is not correct about test tube baby?

a) this method provides baby to infertile couple
b) people who produce fertile egg but their health may not permit to bear children
c) it provides oppurtunity to get babies of desired sex.
d) the rate of success is high..

88) which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of cancer?

a) a tumour arises from an existing tissue or cells of the body
b) they have greater potentiality for growth and multiplication
c) they carry out the functions of normal adult cells
d) they have large and irregular nuclei..

89) carcinoma means

a) a tumour arising from any connective tissue
b) a tumour arising from fibrous tissues.
c) a tumour arising from epithelial cells.
d) tumours of bone

90) first land vertebrates - amphibians developed during _______ period

a) devonian
b) cambrian
c) ordovician
d) silurian

91) which of the following is not an arthropod character exhibited by peripatus?

a) clawed and pseud segmented walking legs
b) presence of thick cuticle
c) presence of trachea as respiratory organ
d) presence of antennae

92) select the correct sequence of evolution with reference to elephant

a) meritherium- stegodon-mammoth-palaemastodon-elephas-loxondonta
b) meritherium-mammoth-palaemastodon-stegodon-elephas-loxodonta
c) meritherium-palaemastodon-stegodon-mammoth-elephas-loxodont
d) meritherium-palaemastodon-elephas-stegodon-mammoth-loxodonta

93) Assertion (A) : Dark-skinned people and blacks are more prone to UV exposure.
Reason (R) : Efficiency of UV rays as carcinogen depends on melanin pigmentation.

a) A is correct, but R is wrong
b) A is wrong, but R is correct
c) Both A and R are correct, and R is the explanation for A
d) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the explanation for A

94) which of these is a non-essential amino acid?

a) valine
b) Glycine
c) Lycine
d) Tryptophan

95) Suppression of gene of one locus by a gene in other locus is called

a) Epistasis
b) Pleiotrophy
c) Co-dominance
d) Incomplete dominance

96) Mobile segments of DNA that can disrupt the function of the gene that they insert into and cause mutation are known as

a) meiosis
b) transposons
c) mutagens
d) missense

97) the type of interaction between two species where protozoan Trichonympha lives in the gut of termites for cellulose digestion is referred to as

a) commensalism
b) mutualism
c) neutralism
d) parasitism

98) centres for regulation of heart beat are situated in the brain at

a) cerebral hemispheres
b) medulla oblongata
c) cerebellum
d) pons varolii

99) A: Insulin increases conversion of glucose into glycogen
B: Insulin increases the oxidation of glucose
c: Insulin reduces blood sugar level

a) A and B only are correct
b) A and C only are correct
c) A, B and C are correct and A and B are not the reason for C
d) A, B and C all are correct and A and B are the correct reason for C

100) which of these is secreted by corpus luteum in a pregnant woman

a) progesterone
b) estrogen
c) androgen
d) relaxin

101) Amino acids are used as food additives for which of the following reasons?

a) As natural antibiotics
b) As natural growth inhibitors
c) For nutritive purposes
d) As antioxidants

102) Lycopene is an important antioxidant normally present in high levels in

a) Artichokes
b) Banans
c) Tomatoes
d) Soyabeans

103) The most common hydrocarbon in naturl gas is

a) methane
b) butane
c) propane
d) ethane

104) The main effect of DDT on birds is

a) fewer feathers
b) reduced growth
c) blindness
d) thinner egg shell

105) which of the following is most hazardous?

a) crop waste
b) yard waste
c) paper waste
d) battery

106) The fertile part of soil is

a) mineral matter
b) soil air
c) humus
d) soil water

1o7) the main source of air pollution is

a) factory exhaust
b) automobile exhaust
c) firewood
d) bad breath

108) majority of all living species on the earth are found in

a) Tundra region
b) antarctica
c) tropical rainforest
d) temperate rainforest

109) cell organelle found only in plants

a) mitochondria
b) plastids
c) golgi complex
d) ribosomes

110) enzymes are polymers of

a) amino acids
b) fatty acids
c) sugar
d) proteins

111) which trait can effectively be conferred into a plant by a transgene?

a) resistance to insects
b) resistance to humans
c) tolerance to light
d) tolerance to snowfall

112) what is the general term used to describe the degradation of pollutants using a biological approach?

a) biostimulation
b) bioremediation
c) biodegradation
d) bioprocessing

113) which genera of micro organisms have the most diverse pathways for bioremediation?

a) pseudomonas
b) salmonella
c) legionella
d) colletotrichum

114) what is nanotechnology?

a) the individual manipulation of molecules and atoms to create materials with novel or improved properties
b) the creation of new terms to describe very small, almost unimaginable particles in physics.
c) the terms used to describe the size of cellular components
d) the transition of molecular biology into the physical science..

115) the colorless, odourless, tasteless, radioactive gas present within homes and buildings is

a) argon
b) radon
c) xenon
d) krypton

116) pedology is the study of

a) rock
b) coal
c) ecosystem
d) soil

117) the absorption of zinc in the human digestive tract my be inhibited by the presence of

a) plant fibre
b) animal fibre
c) water
d) oil

118) A species that is unique to a defined place or region and not found anywhere else is called

a) endangered
b) endemic
c) indigenous
d) extinct

119) the main cause of global rising sea levels is

a) thermal expansion
b) melting glaciers
c) melting of polar ice
d) melting of antarctica

120) anemometer is used to measure

a) wind density
b) wind velocity
c) wind speed
d) wind gravity

121) ketone bodies are produced by

a) brain
b) liver
c) kidney
d) muscles

122) normal urine has the following components except

a) chlorides
b) glucose
c) urea
d) creatinine

123) the most penetrating rays are

a) alpha rays
b) beta rays
c) gamma rays
d) delta rays

124) at what stage of cell division does the centromere divide?

a) prophase
b) telophase
c) metaphase
d) anaphase

125) genetic mapping is based on the linkage between

a) loci
b) muton
c) recon
d) cistron

126) most of the plants obtain nitrogen from the soil in the form of

a) nitrate
b) nitrite
c) nitric acid
d) nitrogen gas

127) the shape of metacentric chromosome is

a) T-shaped
b) rod shaped
c) S- shaped
d) V-shaped

128) which of the following is not an autoimmune disorder?

a) diabetes mellitus
b) haemolytic anemia
c) Rheumatic fever
d) Cholera

129) The natural anticoagulant of blood in the vessels is

b) oxalate
c) citrate
d) Heparin

130) western blotting technique is used to detect the

a) proteins
b) DNA
c) m RNA
d) r RNA

131) which of the following is not a renewable energy resource?

a) wood
b) wave
c) biogas
d) natural gas

132) streptomycin is used to cure the disease caused by

a) bacteria
b) virus
c) yeast
d) fungi

133) antihaemorrhagic vitamin is also called as

a) E
b) B
c) D
d) B12

134) The study of action of drugs is known as

a) pharmacognosy
b) pharmacology
c) pathology
d) parasitology

135) Cholesterol level in blood is increased in all except

a) Nephrotic syndrome
b) Obsructive jaundice
c) Hypoparathyroidism
d) Hperthyroidism

136) COLA refers to

a) cystine, ornithine, leucine, arginine
b) cystine, ornithine, lysine, alanine
c) cystine, ornithine, leucine, alanine
d) cystine, ornithine, lysine, arginine

137) Erythropoietin, the hormone involved in synthesis of RBCs, is released to blood circulation by

a) RBC
b) bone marrow erythroid progenitor cells
c) renal cells
d) hepatic cells

138) which among the following does not bind calcium?

a) calcitonin
b) calbindin
c) calcineurin
d) calmodulin

139) plasma bicarbonate is transported across red blood cells by

a) spectrin
b) ankyrin
c) carbonic anhydrase
d) Band 3 protein

140) Assertion (A) : animals store energy in the form of triglycerides
Reason (R) : triglycerides can be converted to glucose whenever needed

a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true and R is false
d) A is false and R is true

141) the device used to introduce air into the liquid in a fermentor is termed bas

a) impeller
b) baffles
c) sparger
d) thermostat

142) the indian collection of Industrial micro organism is located at

a) chandigarh
b) pune
c) punjab
d) delhi

143) the first virus crystallised by stanley in 1935 was

a) cauliflower mosaic virus
b) tobacco mosaic virus
c) Gemini virus
d) wound tumour virus

144) during world war II the microorganism used as an agent of bio-terrorism was

a) bacillus anthracis
b) brucella abortus
c) Yersinia pestis
d) clostridium botulinum

145) the complete viral particle is known as

a) virion
b) viroid
c) prion
d) virusoid

146) the discovery of human blood group was made by

a) Emil Von Behring
b) Ehrlich
c) Landsteiner
d) Milstein

147) Pencillin the wonder drug was discovered first by alexander fleming from the culture of

a) pencillium notatum
b) pencillium chrysogenum
c) pencillium funiculosum
d) penicillium stoloniferum

148) the term cistron means a

a) unit of function
b) unit of mutation
c) unit of recombination
d) unit of linkage

149) who developed the Rabies vaccine?

a) robert koch
b) robert gallo
c) walther hesse
d) Lousi pasteur

150) Sugar in the nuclotide is

a) hexose
b) pentose
c) priose
d) heptose

151) more dominant group of miccroorgnisms in the soil is

a) bacteria
b) fungi
c) actinomycetes
d) protozoa

152) TDT is

a) thermal delay time
b) thermal divide time
c) thermal death temperature
d) thermal death time

153) the first viral pathogen discovered was

a) HIV
b) TMV
c) HPV
d) YMV

154) plague is caused by

a) bacterium
b) Fungus
c) Alga
d) virus

155) Selman A walkman was awarded nobel prize for the discover of

a) pencillin
b) streptomyces
c) streptomycin
d) pencillium

156) Robert koch has been awarded nobel prize in 1905 for the discovery of

1) antrax
2) cholera
3) tuberculosis

a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 alone
d) 3 alone

157) organisms which utilize simple inorganic compounds are termed as

a) phototrophs
b) autotrophs
c) heterotrophs
d) nectortrophs

158) cross wall formation during cell division is accelerated by

a) ribosomes
b) lysosomes
c) endosomes
d) mesosomes

159) the group of bacteria which includes obligte intracellular parsites is

a) Rickettsiasis
b) mollicutes
c) Archaeobacteria
d) actinomycetes

160) which of the following methods is employed for disposal of sludge that is contaminated with heavy metals heavily?

a) incinertion
b) drying
c) Landfilling
d) Composting

161) The addition of sugar to an egg_____ the heat stability or proteins.

a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
d) increases and then decreases

162) Deteriortion of fat in the presence of oxygen is due to the enzyme

a) Lipase
b) Protease
c) Lipoxygenase
d) peptidase

163) In cheese manufacture curd is formed by the addition of

a) renin
b) protease
c) peptidase
d) amylase

164) Excessive intake of polished rice causes deficiency of

a) A
b) B
c) D
d) K

165) The fat content of toned milk should be

a) less than 1.5%
b) less than 3%
c) more than 3%
d) more than 5%

166) Bitter pit is a

a) chemicl injury
b) physiological injury
c) mechanical injury
d) microbial injury

167) wht is the TSS of fruit syrup?

a) 20%
b) 45%
c) 65%
d) 80%

168) Diethyl pyrocarbonate is used as a preservative for

a) spices
b) fruit juices
c) nuts
d) vegetables

169) a toxic element which may contaminate food is

a) zinc
b) copper
c) lead
d) calcium

170) Tofu is a processed product of

a) Kidney bean
b) navy bean
c) broad bean
d) soyabean

171) Appertizing is a process called canning and is named after

a) nicholes apert
b) micheal apert
c) john apert
d) williams apert

172) consider the following statements

A. Butter is an example for oil in water emulsion
B. Milk is an example for water in oil emulsion

a) Statement A is correct and B is wrong
b) Statement B is correct and A is wrong
c) Statements A and B are wrong
d) Statements A and B are correct

173) consider the following statements

A. Soyabean contains 40% protein and 20 % fat.
B. The quality of protein is poor because of the presence of the trypsin inhibitor

a) statement A is correct and the explanation given in B is wrong
b) statement A is wrong and the explanation given in B is correct
c) statements A and B are correct
d) statements A and B are wrong

174) choose the best answer
The toxin found in groundnut kernel is

a) aflotoxin
b) patulin
c) aminotoxin
d) paratoxin

175) Decomposition of carbohydrates by microorganisms or enzymes is called as

a) pasturisation
b) fermentation
c) canning
d) dextrinisation

176) consider the following statements:

A. Freezing at very low temperature (-60 degrees C) is cryogenic freezing
B. The refregerants used are oxygen and neon

a) A and B are true
B) A is true, B is false
c) B is true, A is false
d) A and B are false

177) consider the following statements:
A. Milk is rich in calcium and vitamin D
B. On heating milk combines with casein and is converted to calcium caseinate

a) statement A is correct and B is wrong
b) statement A and B are correct
c) statements A and B are wrong
d) statement A is wrong and B is correct

178) Freeze crack is seen when foods are frozen by

a) air freezing
b) contact freezing
c) immersion freezing
d) cryogenic freezing

179) hedonic rating test is used to measure

a) sensitivity
b) preference
c) difference
d) quality

180) puffed products are dried to a moisture content less than

a) 12%
b) 8%
c) 4%
d) 16%

181) in which region of india, is shifting cultivation widely followed?

a) south
b) north
c) north-east
d) north-west

182) the toxic substance gossypol is formed in

a) rapeseed
b) lineseed
c) cotton
d) fababean

183) pigeonpea sterility mosaic is transmitted by

a) aceria cajani
b) besmisia tabaci
c) Myzus persicae
d) orosius albicinctus

184) the state which ranks first in sugrcane productivity in India is

a) maharashtra
b) uttar pradesh
c) tamil nadu
d) karnataka

185) frequent ploughing of soil destroys

a) soil texture
b) soil structure
c) soil colour
d) soil type

186) potato late blight is caused by

a) fungus
b) bacterium
c) virus
d) actinomycetes

187) leaf spot with concentric zonations are observed in

a) cercospor
b) pyricularia
c) helminthosporium
d) alternaria

188) Banana bunchy top is caused by

a) fungus
b) bacteria
c) virus

189) sesame phyllody is transmitted by

a) white fly
b) aphid
c) jassid
d) lace wing

190) fungi belonging to which sub-division is called as sac fungi?

a) basidiomycotina
b) ascomycotina
c) Mastigomycotina
d) deuteromycotina

191) In India, which state is popularly named as soya state?

a) andhra pradesh
b) madhya pradesh
c) uttar pradesh
d) tamil nadu

192) the highest protein is found in seeds of

a) bengal gram
b) green gram
c) red gram
d) soyabean

193) Most serious disease of sugar cane is

a) red stripe
b) red rot
c) wilt
d) smut

194) the most common amendment used for reclamation of alkali lands is

a) Lime
b) gypsum
c) tank silt
d) FYM

195) biofertilizer suitable for red gram is

a) rhizobium
b) azospirillum
c) azolla
d) azotobacter

196) cotton is susceptible to drift of

a) Lasso
b) stomp
c) machete
d) 2,4-D

197) The appearence of an organism in a given environment is called as

a) genotype
b) genome
c) idiotype
d) phenotype

198) a windmill suitable for water lifting is

a) single blade type
b) double blade type
c) triple blade type
d) multiple blade type

199) the major protein in whet flour is

a) zein
b) gluten
c) oryzenin
d) hordenine

200) type of moisture that can be removed by common dying techniques is

a) equillibrium moisture
b) total moisture
c) free moisture
d) bound moisture

Wednesday, September 5, 2012


IBPS RRB Probationary Officers Exam Was held on sep 2 2012.The exam was easier compared to the last ibps exam conducted for other public sector banks on june 17.

Coming to the expected cut off marks if u can score 70% or above marks (not standardised score)u can expect the job.In the particular exam you need to get 140 or above to be on safe side,these students have high chances of getting job.
Students who are getting between 120-140 can expect interview and getting job depends on your interview marks.There are as many as 83 banks participating in this so dont worry folks any thing can happen.


Tuesday, July 10, 2012

Serena Williams and USA Volleyball Team bold photoshoot for espn

Serena Williams and USA Volleyball Team bold photoshoot for espn

celina jaitleys bare boob act stuns everybody

We wonder if it was intentional and that not being in the limelight has taken a toll on the former beauty queen. If at all that was a desperate attempt to get back into the thick of things, then that’s the most horrible of endeavours from the newest mom in the block. Celina, who came back to the country for the first time since giving birth to her twins caused quite a flutter at a recent Bollywood event, thanks to her ever-revealing dresses, which revealed more than the needful this time around.

Hot Pictures Of Annual World Bodypainting Festival at lake Woerthersee in Austria's southern Carinthia province

at lake Woerthersee in Austria's southern Carinthia province

Monday, July 9, 2012

Bank-PO-Paper-For-Computer-General-Awareness-2010 -IBPS RRB


Friday, April 6, 2012

United India Insurance Company Limited Specialist/Generalist Officers Recruiment 2012

good news dont miss this opportunity

Bharath Heavy Electricals Limited Recruitment Of Artisans 2012


The above 750 vacancies are reserved as follows:--





Out of 750 vacancies the following are reserved for

Ex-S Physically challenged









UR - unreserved; OBC - Non-creamy layer; SC - Scheduled Caste; ST - Scheduled Tribe; Ex-S - Ex-serviceman; VC-Visually Challenged; HI - Hearing impaired; LM - Locomotor

As reservation for Ex-Servicemen and Physically Challenged persons is on horizontal basis, the vacancies will be filled and adjusted in the appropriate category viz., (UR/OBC/SC/ST).

Note: The number of vacancies being tentative, the reserved vacancies status in only indicative. The no. of vacancies in each category may undergo revision in that eventuality.

Vacancies for OBC category are meant only for those coming under the 'non-creamy layer'. 'Non Creamy Layer' under OBC means 'the gross annual income of parents of the candidate should not be more than 4.5 lakhs in the last three consecutive years.' The OBC candidates who do not belong to Non Creamy Layer should indicate their category as General only.
The definition of Low Vision/Blindness, Locomotor Disability & Hearing Impairment for Physically challenged is as per "The Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995".
The Physically Challenged candidates are required to furnish stamped Medical Certificate in relation to their disability from a Government Hospital or Medical Board attached to Special Employment Exchange for the handicap.
Candidates belonging to SC/ST categories and Physically Challenged candidates are exempted from paying the examination fee.
Upper age limit is relaxable by 5 years for SC/ST, 3 years for OBC candidates and for Physically Challenged category - 10 years for General candidates, 13 years for OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) and 15 years for SC/ST category as per rules. All Ex-Servicemen will be allowed age relaxation to the extent of service plus 3 years (6 years in the case of OBC and 8 years for SC/ST).
Upper age is relaxed by 5 years for the candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in the state of Jammu & Kashmir during the period from 01/01/1980 to 31/12/1989.
Upper age limit is further relaxable upto 84 months to candidates possessing equivalent and relevant experience of working directly in a Public or Private Sector organization manufacturing Boiler components of not less than 100 MW capacity. This age relaxation of a maximum of 84 months will be applicable to candidates having aforesaid experience of 50 months of continuous or intermittent service. Those with lesser months of experience will be entitled for age relaxation on pro rata basis. Such candidates will have to compete with other eligible candidates in Written Test / Interview etc.
For claiming age relaxation, experience certificate from the employer/organisation is to be produced, with details of period of working, nature of products manufactured etc. Those engaged through a contractor directly in these operations would also be entitled to the relaxation. The experience certificate submitted by candidates for fulfilling eligibility criteria shall be subject to verification by BHEL and the decision of BHEL regarding authenticity / genuineness of experience certificates and relevance of experience shall be final and binding on the candidate. The Company will issue the offer of appointment for the candidates who get selected after availing this relaxation only after verification.


The selected candidates will initially work as Temporary Employees (Artisans) for a period of one year. In addition, candidates selected for Crane Operator cum Rigger posts will be required to undergo specific training in crane operation and rigging for one year in the Company during the period as Temporary Employee (Artisan). During the period of one year they will be paid a consolidated wage of Rs.11,000/- p.m. In addition, they will be entitled for free medical benefits for self and dependant family members as per Company Rules and will also be eligible for subsidised company accommodation, if available
On successful completion of this period, they will be absorbed in the regular establishment as ARTISAN GRADE-IV and placed at the minimum of the scale of pay of Rs.11700-23000/- with applicable allowances such as Dearness Allowance, perks at 46% of Basic pay, HRA and other benefits viz., Uniform, Leave, CPF, Gratuity, Group Insurance and Group Accident Insurance as per rules. House Rent allowance etc. At the end of one year period, an absorption test comprising of written test, Skill test and interview will be conducted. The absorption in the regular establishment will be based on review of their performance/ behaviour / suitability to remain in the services of the Organisation as assessed by the Committee constituted for this purpose.

Preference of Best Apprentice & Other Benefits:

Preference for BEST Apprentice/RUNNER UP Apprentice (Gold Medalists and Silver medalists at All India Apprentices Competitions conducted by The Directorate General of Employment and Training). These candidates who were selected as BEST APPRENTICE or RUNNER UP APPRENTICE in the All India Trade Test NEED NOT appear for written test. They will be directly called for interview subject to fulfilling other terms and conditions and eligibility criteria. In the event of their selection, Best Apprentice will be inducted as Artisan Gr IV with 2 increments and Runner-up Apprentice will be inducted as Artisan Gr. IV in the pay scale of Rs.11700-23000/-.

Health Standards

Applicant should have sound health. Before joining, selected candidates will have to undergo medical examination by the Company's Authorised Medical Officer and the appointment will be subject to meeting the health standards prescribed by the Company. No relaxation in health standards is allowed.
The candidates are advised in their own interest to get themselves thoroughly examined by a competent Medical Officer before applying against the advertisement.

Selection Process

All Eligible candidates shall be invited for an objective type Written Test to be conducted at Tiruchirappalli. The Question paper will be tri-lingual in English/Hindi/Tamil languages. The call letters may be downloaded from No separate intimation will be sent to the candidates by post.
On the basis of merit of Written Test marks, candidates shall then be invited for Personal Interview in the ratio of 1:3 to the number of vacancies.
All eligible Ex-Serviceman candidates who possess the pass certificate of NTC/NAC or equivalent (% of marks not mandatory) in the relevant trade shall be called for written test.

How to apply

Candidates desirous of applying shall apply online at the website:
A non refundable fee of Rs.125/- is payable by the General / OBC candidates. (Click Here for Challan)
The fee can be paid in any of the branches of State Bank of India, into Power Jothi A/c, No 30796267034 @ HE, Kailasapuram, Trichy-14 (code no.01363) in favour of Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, Tiruchirappalli
The triplicate challan for payment of Examination and processing fee of Rs.125/- can be downloaded from the web site
The Journal No. given by the bank on payment of fee needs to be entered in the online Application Form. The challan copy wherever applicable (BHEL copy only), needs to be attached with the Acknowledgement Slip and sent to BHEL along with other documents
No other mode of payment i.e., Demand Draft, Money Order, Postal Order, Cheque etc., is acceptable

Candidates belonging to SC/ST categories and Physically Challenged candidates are exempted from paying the examination fee

General Instructions/Conditions

The submission of applications will be on-line only through our recruitment website ( and no other form of application will be entertained. After submission, candidates shall take print out of the Acknowledgement Slips to be sent to BHEL.

Candidates shall send the Acknowledgement Slips along with the applicable enclosures:
Challan (BHEL copy) for having paid the application fee wherever applicable
Caste Certificate (SC / ST / OBC-Non creamy layer)(Click Here for format of OBC Certificate & (Click Here for format of OBC self undertaking)
Medical Certificate issued by the Medical Board (Physically Challenged candidates only)
Discharge and trade proficiency certificates (Ex-Servicemen only)
Letter issued by the Directorate General of Employment and Training (All India Apprentices Competitions - Best Apprentice and Runner up Apprentice) - if applicable
Domicile certificate (J&K Candidates only)
Experience certificate for claiming age relaxation

Category such as OBC, SC, ST, and Physically Challenged should be carefully filled up in the Application form, as this will not be allowed to be changed at a later date. Also the category once declared, if found to be false at any later stage will render the candidate liable for suitable action including termination and prosecution.

Employees of Govt./Semi Govt. Departments, Public Sector Undertakings/ Autonomous Bodies must apply through Proper Channel or produce a "NO OBJECTION CERTIFICATE" at the time of interview.

Candidates who have left a PSU after availing Voluntary Retirement, if selected will be required to return the VRS compensation received to the PSU concerned.

No request for transfer or change in place of posting shall be entertained for the first five years of service.

Any legal proceedings in respect of any matter of claim or dispute arising out of this advertisement and/ or an application in response thereto can be instituted only in Tiruchirappalli and the Courts / Tribunals/ Forums at Tiruchirappalli only shall have sole and exclusive jurisdiction.

Candidates should ensure that they fulfill the essential eligibility criteria prescribed for the post for which they have applied. If at any stage during selection or after selection it is found that the candidate does not fulfill the eligibility conditions and the facts furnished/documents attached are not correct and true, then the selection/appointment of the candidate can be cancelled at any time without assigning any reasons.

The Management reserves the right to reschedule / cancel / suspend / terminate the recruitment process without assigning any reasons and alter the terms and conditions at any time during the process due to any exigency. The decision of the management will be final and no appeal will be entertained.

Interim inquiries will not be attended to and any form of canvassing will be a disqualification and will render the candidates ineligible for selection.

BHEL does not take responsibility of attaching the documents or application fee sent separately after the dispatch of the original application form.

Candidates are advised to possess a valid e-mail ID, which is to be entered in the on-line application form. They are also advised to retain this e-mail ID active as any important intimation to them shall be provided by BHEL through e-mail.

Our recruitment website ( will provide necessary details regarding selection, how to apply, general instructions, last date of submission of Acknowledgement Slips, written test etc.

No correspondence will be entertained from candidates not invited/selected for written test or interview.

Important Dates

1. Commencement of Online Submission of Applications

2. Closing of Online submission of applications

3. Last date of receipt of Acknowledgment Slips at BHEL Tiruchi

4. Last date of receipt of acknowledgement slips from far flung area at BHEL, Tiruchy


Acknowledgement Slips with Enclosures required, shall be addressed to:
Deputy General Manager (HR)

HRM Department, Building 24

Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

Tiruchirapalli - 620014

So as to reach us latest by 30 / 04 / 2012

Apply Online and download Acknowledgement Slips and SBI Payment Challan from our website.

Tamilnad Mercantile Bank Ltd Recruitment Of Clerks 2012

Become familiar with the Recruitment of Clerks 2012 at TMB.

Learn more about the Recruitment of Clerks at TMB.


A Graduate (Arts, Commerce & Science) other than Engineering category with 50% marks or a Post Graduate, from a recognized University in regular college course with knowledge in Computer Operations.
An Engineering Graduate with 55% marks from a recognized University in regular college course with knowledge in Computer Operations.

Note: Students who are awaiting final semester result may also apply subject to the conditions mentioned in this page.


Maximum: For Graduates: 24 years and for Post Graduates 26 years as on Mar 31, 2012.

Relaxation for MBC / BC will be 2 years. Relaxation for SC / ST / Physically Handicapped will be 5 years.

Cut Off Date of Birth for Under Graduates:

For General: Date of Birth on or after - Apr. 01, 1988
For MBC / BC: Date of Birth on or after - Apr. 01, 1986
For SC / ST / PH: Date of Birth on or after - Apr. 01, 1983
Cut Off Date of Birth for Post Graduates:

For General: Date of Birth on or after - Apr. 01, 1986
For MBC / BC: Date of Birth on or after - Apr. 01, 1984
For SC / ST / PH: Date of Birth on or after - Apr. 01, 1981

Candidates will have to pay a fee of Rs. 200.00 (Rs. 100.00 for SC / ST Candidates) by way of crossed demand draft drawn in favour of Tamilnad Mercantile Bank Ltd. Payable at Thoothukudi / Tuticorin or Tirunelveli.

Procedure for selection:

The candidates should appear for written examination to be held at Chennai, Madurai, Salem, Tirunelveli, and Thoothukudi centres. The Date, Time and Venue of Written Test will be communicated to the eligible candidates individually by post. The written examination will be of objective type. After evaluation, on the basis of the written test, candidates will be short listed for a personal interview in the order of merit.

Training / Probationary Period:

Selected candidates will be placed at any Branch / Office on Probation for a period of one year. They will be fixed at following pay scale with applicable DA.
The emoluments during the period of probation will be Basic Pay of Rs. 8000/- plus applicable DA (At present Rs. 5,040/-) etc. The total emoluments at present approximately is Rs. 13,900/- per month.

The selected candidates will be posted anywhere in INDIA.

for more check official website

Monday, March 12, 2012

VRO and VRA Results-Check Online-Sms Results

Happy news.vro and vra results have been declared please check out for your results .all the best

check out for the results

click here

Wednesday, March 7, 2012

National award winner vidya balan- Goes bare again for FHM magazine

Vidya Balan has done it again. She has again exposed for FHM magazine. In the March issue of the magazine, Vidya goess ooh lala exposing her back undraped in a lungi. The ‘Dirty Picture’ actress poses backless for the same magazine in 2010 and she has again done it ahead the release of her next release 'Kahaani'.

On the cover page of FHM magazine, Vidya went a step ahead, she shows off her sexy back in an unwrapped lungi! On the cover page, FHM announces, “Lungis, Gangis and Return of Vidya Balan”.

Grapevine buzzed that apart from FHM, Vidya Balan will also be seen flaunting her sexy side on the cover page of Harper’s Bazaar this month. The magazine will celebrate its third anniversary in March and they have chosen Vidya Balan as the ultimate choice. At the photoshoot, Vidya will sport a rock chic, glam look.

Meanwhile, on the career front, Vidya Balan is riding high on the success of ‘The Dirty Picture’. She has bagged the best actress award at all the awards ceremonies. She is ready to set ablaze the silver screen with another dynamic performance in Sujoy Ghosh’s ‘Kahaani’. The film is slated to release this Friday.

International Womens Day 2012- March 8

At least they have a special day to celebrate.congratulating every women

March 7, 2012. ( March 8th marks International Women's Day. It's a time to recognize the contributions women make to society and also a time to see what improvements are needed.

So, precisely to highlight the issue, the Holy See addressed the Commission on the Status of Women at the United Nations in New York. There, a Vatican delegation talked about the rights of women who live in rural areas...rights that unfortunately are often ignored.

During the speech, the delegation said these women often work long hours, which usually go unpaid. They have poor nutrition, lack access to water, healthcare and are exposed to violence, even when pregnant.

The Vatican's message was echoed by Chile's former president Michelle Bachelet, who now serves as the executive director of UN Women.

Michelle Bachelet
UN Women, Executive Director
“They are farmers, entrepreneurs and leaders and their contributions sustain the families, communities, nations and all of us. Yet, they face some of the worst inequities in access to social services and land and other productive assets.”

Even though the challenges may seem overwhelming the Vatican delegation says they must be addressed. Worldwide, one in every four people are women or girls who live in rural areas. The Holy See said these challenges give rise to opportunities, where women's dignity and potential can be fully respected.

During the month of March, the Pope's prayer intention are for women, so that their contributions to society are recognized worldwide.

Tuesday, March 6, 2012

Reserve Bank of India 1000 Assistants Recruitment 2012

Best chance to get into RBI

Eligibility Criteria
To be between 18-28 yrs of age as on 01.03.2012 (Should have born between 02/03/1984 to 01/03/1994).
Should have passed in degree with at least 50% marks (Just pass for SC/ST/PWD). Note that degree should have been obtained from a University/Board within the Recruitment Zone of the concerned Office to which you are applying. (See advertisement for details about Offices and locations).
Should have Good Basic Knowledge in computers (MS Office Etc. ).
Relaxation in Upper age Limit :-
For SC/ST :- 5 Years Relaxation,
For OBC :- 3 Years Relaxation,
For PWD (GEN) :- 10 Years Relaxation,
For PWD (SC/ST) :- 15 Years Relaxation,
For PWD (OBC) :- 13 Years Relaxation,
Selection Procedure
Selection will be on the basis of performance in written test and Interview. Written test of 200 marks will have objective questions from,
i) Test of Reasoning, (ii) Test of English Language (iii) Test of Numerical Ability (iv) Test of General Awareness and (v) Test of Computer Knowledge,

Bank will call candidates for Interview that are successful in written test ( based on vacancies ).
For any Further details about selection Procedure, Please see Reserve Bank of India Clerks Recruitment 2012 Advertisement

Application Procedure
The fee is Rs. 385 (No fee for SC/ST/PWD). Please note that Payment is to made After Applying Online.
To apply, firstly get your photograph and signature scanned and Apply Online via Link given below on RBI Website. Take print out of the system generated Fee payment challan and note the Registration Number and password.
Now the payment is to be made from second day of application and for next three working days only. The registration is confirmed only after fee is paid. Fee is to be paid at any branch of Bank of Baroda / Bank of India / Indian Overseas Bank / Central Bank of India / Punjab National Bank / United Bank of India. On payment, you'll receive an E-mail/SMS within 2 days stating that your application is successful.
Note that you could also pay online via your credit/debit card. In this case, no challan will be generated and you can pay immediately. An eReceipt and application form will be generated after payment and successful application.

Candidates will be able to download call Letters for written exam well before exam and they'll be notified through Email.

Gramin Bank Jobs - IBPS to conduct Common Written Exam for Gramin Banks

IBPS To conduct common examination for the posts of gramin bank or RRB'S

IBPS (Institute of Banking Personnel Selection) has become a buzzword among the candidates seeking jobs in Public sector banks in India. In 2010, government of India decided to conduct a common written exam for recruitment in Banks and gave this responsibility to IBPS. Now, IBPS has been given another task of conducting Common Written Exam for Recruitment in RRBs (Region Rural Banks, also called Gramin Banks).
RRBs were set up in the country to ensure sufficient institutional credit for agriculture and other rural sectors. While there were 196 RRBs in country in early 2000s, now there are 82 left. Many Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were joined together to give them more strong financial background.
According to All-India RRB Employees Association, there will be good amount of recruitment in RRBs in coming years. Currently, IBPS conducts separate written exams for various RRBS whenever they need to recruit, this used to be a lot of rework and headache for IBPS. But now, there will be a common written exam for posts in all RRBs.
To revise, process will be same for recruitment in RRBs as that for PO and Clerks posts. Candidates will get scorecards after passing the written exam that will enable them to attend various RRBs Interviews if they meet the cut off set by the bank.
Note that unlike PSU banks , RRBs belong to a particular region within a state that will naturally become their eligibility criteria. It means candidates belonging to a particular state and knowing the local language will be applicable for the job Interviews in RRBs.
Whenever any official announcement is made in this regard, we'll update you!!

Next IBPS Common PO Exam on June 17

Happy news for the bank jobs aspirants.Next ibps to be conducted on june 17 read more

Hot news is Here, Next IBPS Common PO written exam will be on June 17.
Although IBPS is yet to publish the official draft about this update, it is cleared that next Common exam for PO/MT posts in Participating Public sector banks will be held on 17th of June, 2012.
IBPS conducted a common exam for PO/MT posts arising in 19 Public sector banks in september 2011. About 14 lakh registered and 10 lakh appeared for it. Finally 1.1 lakh were able to pass it. This time, number of applicants is expected to increase.
This was the question being asked by many, now the dates have been announced and registrations for next CWE for PO/MTs will open from Mar 9 to 30, 2012.
Note that people looking to Improve from their Previous IBPS scores from first Common PO exam in September 2011 may also apply for this second common PO exam. The dates announced for next common exam are as follows:-

Dates of Online Registration and payment of fees (Online)- Mar 9 - 30, 2012
Offline Fee Payment - Mar 12 to Apr 7, 2012
Common Written Exam (CWE) for PO - June 17, 2012
Note that Eligibility criteria will still be graduation completed in any discipline. More details will be available after official advertisement is issued. Also, if you attended the previous PO exam and looking for improve score then you may apply for it. Try your best and you'll be able to use best of two scorecards until the one year of validity. No scorecard will expire before One year of validity!!

More Details will be posted after official advertisement in next few days!!

SBI Recruitment 2012: Assistants and Stenographers

Good news for the students looking for a respectable job.Sbi announces clerical post recruitment

State Bank of India is recruiting Assistants and Stenographers [Clerical Recruitment] for 2012. State Bank of India is the largest banking and financial services company in India by revenue, assets and market capitalization. Its a state-owned corporation with its headquarters in Mumbai, Maharashtra. As of March 2011, it had assets of US$ 370 billion with over 13,000 outlets including 150 overseas branches and agents globally.

The State Bank of India is the largest of the Big Four banks of India, along with ICICI Bank, Punjab National Bank and HDFC Bank—its main competitors.






* PAYMENT OF FEES : 07.03.2012 TO 31.03.2012



Free Holi SMS Holi Shayari -Colourful Festival

Celebrate the eve of holi with our colourful sms and shayari

Gul ne gulshan se gulfam bheja hai,

Sitaro ne aasman se salaam bheja hai,

Mubaraq ho aapko holi ka tyohar,

Humne dil se yeh paigam bheja hai…!!

Saade rang ko galti se aap naa kora samjho,
Isi mey samaaye indradhanushi saaton rang,
Jo dikhe aapko zindagi saadagi bhari kisi ki,
To aap yun samjho satrangi hai duniya usiki,
Holi aayi satrangi rango ki bouchar laayi,
Dher saari mithai aur mitha mitha pyar laayi,
Aap ki zindagi ho mithe pyar aur khusiyon se bhari,
Jisme samaaye saaton rang yahi shubhkamna hai hamaari..!!


Happy Holi
Just like a red rose that fills the world with beauty & fragrance…You have made my life so beautiful by being in it.On Holi, the festival of colors & joyI wanna say thank you for all the love & smilesyou’ve brought to my life. Happy Holi

Tumhari holi ho number one, aur tum karo whole lotta fun! wishing you a happy & colour full holi. Happy Holi

Fortunate is the one who has learned to admire, but not to envy.Good Wishes for a joyous Holi with a plenty of peace and prosperity.

Holi Jokes SMS
Dear subscriber,
Your validity for taking a bath expires on this holi.
Kindly recharge the validity by taking a bath to avoid
khujli, dandruff, maeil and badbooo …
So wish you a happy holi!

Holi Ka Tyohar Apno Ka Pyaar
Pichkari ki Dhar,
Gulal ki bauchar,
Apno ka pyar,
Yahi hai yaaron Holi ka tyohar.
Happy Holi!!!!

Happy Holi
Rang udaye Pichkari
rang se rang jaye duniya sari
holi ke rang
aapke jeevan ko rang de ye shubha kaana hai hamari.

Holi Mubarak
Khaa key gujiya,
pee key bhaang,
laaga k thora thora sa rang,
baaja ke dholak aur mridang,
khele holi hum tere sang.

Wednesday, February 29, 2012

State bank of India 9500 Clerks Recruitment 2012 (Including 3100 Posts announced earlier)

State bank of India 9500 Clerks Recruitment 2012 (Including 3100 Posts announced earlier)

SBI Has announced Recruitment of Clerks in Assistants and Stenographers cadre by revising its earlier advertisement that announced 3100 posts in OBC/SC/ST and North - East Region. Now the revision is made to include candidates from all the categories and across the country. Written exam dates are also revised from Mar 18 to May 27 and June 3.
State Bank of India is the largest public sector Bank in India with Headquarters in Mumbai. SBI now has vast network of over 16000 branches across india and also has numerous overseas offices. State Bank of India Invites applications for recruitment of Clerks in Assistants and Stenographers cadre.

Vacancies and Payscale

Clerks - Assistants - 8500 Posts ( Inclusive of 3100 vacancies already advertised earlier Here).
Clerks - Stenographers (English) - 900, Hindi - 100
Payscale :- Rs. 7200 - 19300 (Approx Rs. 14,177/Month)
(See Advertisement for more detailed info about vacancies and their distribution..)
Important Dates
Online Registration :- Mar 05 to 26, 2012,
Payment of fees :- Mar 7 to 31, 2012
Written Test Date :- 27.05.2012 and 03.06.2012 (May change as decided by SBI Bank)
Eligibility Criteria
To be between 18-28 yrs of age as on 01.12.2011,
Should have passed intermediate with at least 60% marks or Diploma (After 10th) (55% For SC/ST/EXS/PWD)
Pass in degree as on Dec 1, 2011 (No percentage Criteria).
Fluency in English and local language is Required and Basic Knowledge in computers (MS Office Etc. ) is preferred.
Relaxation in Upper age Limit :-
For SC/ST :- 5 Years Relaxation,
For OBC :- 3 Years Relaxation,
For PWD (GEN) :- 10 Years Relaxation,
For PWD (SC/ST) :- 15 Years Relaxation,
For PWD (OBC) :- 13 Years Relaxation,
Selection Procedure
Selection to be made on the basis of performance in written test and Interview. Written test will be objective type having questions from General Awareness, General English, Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, Marketing
Aptitude / Computer Knowledge.
For those applying for stenographer posts :- They will be called for a skill test in stenography after qualifying the written test. In that skill test, The candidate will be given one dictation for 10 minutes in English/Hindi at the speed
of 100 w.p.m. The matter will have to be transcribed on computer in 40 minutes in case of English Stenography and in 55 minutes in case of Hindi Stenography. Candidate should score min 50% marks to qualify this test.
There will be negative marking of 1/4th of the total marks for any question.
Bank will decide Passing marks and depending on the vacancies (In the ratio of 1:3), candidates will be considered for Interview process.
For any Further details about selection Procedure, Please see State Bank of India Clerks Recruitment 2012 Advertisement

Application Procedure
The fee for this application is Rs. 50 for SC/ST/PWD/EXS in Each case while for Others, its Rs. 350 (Assistants Only), Rs. 500 (Assistants and Stenographers (Hindi/English)) Rs. 600 (Assistants and Stenographers (Hindi and English Both)). Please note that Payment is to made After Applying Online.
To apply, you have to get your photograph and signature scanned and Apply Online via SBI Website Link (To be activated on Mar 5). Take print out of the system generated Fee payment challan and note the Registration Number and password.
The payment of fees can be done using the generated payment challan from second day of application and for next three working days only. The registration is confirmed only after fee is paid.
On confirmation of registration, you will receive and SMS/Email within 2 working days stating the same.
The call Letters for written exam can be downloaded from May 12, 2012 from SBI bank website.

Apply Online Link to be activated on Mar 5, 2012.

Monday, January 16, 2012

Andhra Bank PO Recruitment 2012-OBC Backlog Posts

Andhra Bank PO Recruitment 2012-OBC Backlog Posts

andhra bank announced obc backlog probationary officers posts 2012
candidates of obc category with score in ibps specified by bank are eligible
for full notification check out the official website of the bank

check employment news dated 21-1-2012 to 27-1-2012

last date to apply-14-2-2012